Wednesday, May 19, 2010

What do I think about Replacement Theology or Supersessionism?

This was definitely not something I thought I needed to address. However, the more I've studied on Replacement Theology and supersessionism, the more I believe it needs to be addressed. I would like to begin by stating that this form of theology is outright heresy. I do not believe in taking away anything from the Bible. Deuteronomy 4:2 states 2 Do not add to what I command you and do not subtract from it, but keep the commands of the LORD your God that I give you." Matthew 5:17-18 equally encouraged by Yeshua states - 17"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Torah or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Torah until everything is accomplished."

Everything has not been accomplished. Heaven and Earth have not passed away. Heaven and Earth will NOT pass away, but in Revelation, the same word for new "hadashah" is once again utilized, so heaven and earth will be renewed. Scripturally there is no argument. However, objections still arise from the side of Replacement Theology.

Two of these I will address today.

Some Christian Apologists assume that Ephesians 2:15 means that the Torah has been abolished. What is overlooked here is that when Christians do this, they are attempting to make a bona fide argument for the Ebionites who think that Rav Shaul's writings should not be followed because they contradict the teachings of Yeshua. So lets take a look at this argument in a fuller sense.

Lets take a look at Ephesians 2:15. What does it say? Look at Ephesians 2:14-16. It states " 14For he himself is our peace, who has made the two one and has destroyed the barrier, the dividing wall of hostility, 15by abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations. His purpose was to create in himself one new man out of the two, thus making peace, 16and in this one body to reconcile both of them to God through the cross, by which he put to death their hostility." In English we see from several of the versions it appears that the Torah is that which is being completely abolished according to the New International Version...which is largely associated with the King James Version. I believe the KJV to be a poorly translated version with some strong political motivations (again, good for another article).

Okay, the English Wycleffe version that we have states Ephesians 2:14-16 differently. "14 For he is our peace, that made both one, and unbinding the middle wall of a wall without mortar,
15 enmities in his flesh; and voided the law of commandments by dooms [voiding the law of commandments by dooms], that he make two in himself into a new man, making peace,
16 to reconcile both in one body to God by the cross [that he reconcile both in one body to God by the cross], slaying the enmities in himself. "

Another translation has dooms "by ordinances." What in the world does this mean?

We know from Romans 7:12 that it is stated that the Torah is holy, righteous and good. If its holy righteous and good, then it wouldn't make sense that this is the wall that is the barrier described here. Besides according to Numbers 15, there is no barrier at all, because both Gentile and Jew are under the instruction of God. So it has to be something else. So what is it? When we go back to the Greek we have the answer. According to http://www.torahresource.com/EnglishArticles/Eph%202.14.pdf the word translated from Rav Shaul's writings is "
ton nomon twn entolwn en dogmasin." Whats interesting to note is that this same expression is utilized in 3 Macabbees 1:3 in relation to the "traditions of our fathers." The Rabbinical laws have been abolished. It is also utilized by Philo and Josephus as translated into the Greek for the same thing. And the term is not utilized in Genesis 26:5 "5 because Abraham obeyed me and kept my requirements, my commands, my decrees and my laws." So what this must denote is that Yeshua tore down the man made Rabbinic traditions, the halakah, that separated the Jews from the Gentiles. Thus it is worthy of note that the enmity existing between the Jews and the Gentiles was broken down. In order to actually do away with the Torah, the word that Rav Shaul would have utilized in this instance would have been - ha patros nomos. We have also stated several times in some of my other writings a legalistic approach to the Torah vs. the following of the Torah due to love of God.

As Rabbi Eric Carlson, who contributed to Sid Roth's book The Incomplete Church states in a conversation between myself and himself regarding this enmity, "At the point in time that Eph 2 was written, Israel (Jews) had a relationship with God through His written word, just as it is today. Gentiles, were estranged and far off, they had no relationship with God through His written word. Because we had God and Gentiles did not there arose enmity (Hostility-animosity) between the two groups because one had God's word and one did not. The Law (Torah) wasn't done away with. "

Another statement that must be made is in regards to "Olam." Now many Supersessionistic theologians, Dr. Glenn Miller included, will rightfully admit that olam does not always mean forever. It actually means world. BUT LE'OLAM DOES MEAN FOREVER! In his article on olam, he wrongly sides with the Pharisees and the Rabbis who attempt to get rid of the Torah (funny how he never ACTUALLY quotes directly what the Rabbis state in regard to the Torah). In his references from the Talmud, he never states how they attempt to put the Rabbi's words over God's words. Rico Cortez on his website http://www.wisdomintorah.org/ has plenty of mention on the attempts of what the Rabbis were trying to do. There are no loose ends about it. It appears to me he has not formally studied very much on Jewish history. He mentions only the school of hillel, but also seems to completely disregard that there is another school of thought, the school of shammai. The school of shammai has the Pharisees that hated the Gentiles, the ones who Yeshua addresses "Woe to you o Pharisees". Rav Shaul was from the school of shammai. Yeshua was from the school of hillel. Messianic Jews know this, recognize it, and embrace it. He also believes the Pharisees to be "good Jews", but not all of them were. Yeshua who even followed the traditions of the fathers mentions many things that the Pharisees were doing incorrectly. Dr. Miller also does something that I conclude should never be done when addressing Jews. He calls Yeshua "Son of David." What I don't agree with this usage is this. Jews will read that and say, "Hey, we're right, the Messiah hasn't come yet because Mashiach ben David is the Messiah we're looking for." Well Mashiach ben David hasn't come yet. When addressing the Jews, we should utilize terms like, high priest, the tsadiyq, Elohim to get our point across of which role the Messiah has fulfilled up to this point. When Yeshua quotes from Isaiah 61:1-2, he stops in the middle of what he is reading and states "these things have been fulfilled today." We should differentiate the Messiah's roles, since Mashiach ben Yosef has already come (the high priest), and Mashiach ben David (king of kings and lord of lords), the other role of Yeshua, is coming again. For this reason I think Dr. Michael L. Brown or even Rico Cortez is a better resource to utilize on how to witness to a Jew than Dr. Glenn Miller. Again, I generally agree with Dr. Glenn Miller on so much material, but just a few nitpicks that I need to make clear that I believe significantly affects his Theology and even his ability to reach out to Jews. Supersessionistic Theologians actually state wrongly that olam means in perpetuity in hopes that this would mean that it is not forever. There is no difference because in fact, in perpetuity means forever according to Webster's dictionary. Olam can be used in different circumstances, but in reference to God as accorded to something else, olam means forever. When it is utilized in instances regarding a contractual relationship between a man and another man, as it is done in Exodus 21:6, it means for the rest of the existing life of the person involved. So it does mean forever! In the instance of the slave having his ear pierced, what this means is that he will become a part of the family, which makes him a part of that family forever. The existing covenant with God does not change ever. The word of God or the Torah has become flesh. Does the word abolish the word? Does God have an end? If we are to conclude a univocality of the word olam, then he does have a beginning and an end. So this would disqualify the God of the Bible from being God. We know thats absurdity, but it is merely the fault of Replacement theologians. The duration of God is forever, and it follows consequently, since the breath of God (ruach hakodesh) also is eternal, that anything God states is eternal. When God makes a contractual agreement with mankind, it is permanent. Secondly, does God ever completely change his instruction? We have certain areas where points are refined, but at no point is anything necessarily taken away. Even on the sermon on the mount by Yeshua, points are added, but nothing is ever completely done away with (not even on the oaths, because it is mentioned in the Torah that it is not a sin to not take an oath, but nowhere it is stated that it is required to do so. Any oath that is made must be kept however, Yeshua sees no need to swear by an oath, so it is not a sin or a changing of the Torah to state that we no longer need to take one). Third, one point never covered by Glenn Miller on his article is the term "le'olam va'ed" which definitively means forever and forever. This is utilized in reference to God's covenants with Israel, which also includes the Torah. This also is utilized in reference to God. Even a generally accurate source has its flaws :). Most of the material from Glenn Miller is found here -http://www.christian-thinktank.com/baduseot.html and I have to say I am completely amazed on the lack of attention that he put on the school of shammai, given his generally accurate outlook on the Bible. 90% of this guy's work I'm completely in favor of, and I usually enjoy his attention to detail.

Thus, we have two major flaws within Replacement Theology/Supersessionism that have been covered. I will expand on this later. But the major problem I have with Replacement Theology is straight from the Bible, the verse that proceeds from Matthew 5:17-18. Matthew 5:19 states "19Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven." In other words, its an all or nothing!

5 comments:

  1. Comment about "Matt 5:17-19":


    Ribi Yehoshua ha-Mashiakh (the Messiah) from Nazareth’s authentic teachings reads:
    [Torah, Oral Law & Hebrew Matityahu: Ribi Yehoshua Commanded Non-Selective Observance
    The Netzarim Reconstruction of Hebrew Matityahu (NHM) 5:17-20]
    [Glossaries found in the website below.]:

    "I didn't come to subtract from the Torâh of Moshëh or the Neviim, nor to add onto the Torah of Moshëh did I come. Because, rather, I came to [bring about the] complete [i.e., non-selective] observance of them in truth.
    Should the heavens and ha-Aretz exchange places, still, not even one י or one of the Halâkhâh of the Torah of Moshehshall so much as exchange places; toward the time when it becomes that they are all being performed -- i.e., non- selectively -- in full.
    For whoever deletes one [point of] the Halâkhâh of these mitzwot from Torah, or shall teach others such, [by those in] the Realm of the heavens he shall be called 'deleted.' And whoever ratifies and teaches them shall be called ' Ribi' in the Realm of the heavens.

    For I tell you that unless your tzәdâqâh is over and above that of the [Hellenist-Roman Pseudo- Tzedoqim] Codifiers of halakhah, and of the Rabbinic- Perushim sect of Judaism, no way will you enter into the Realm of the heavens." (see NHM)

    Quote from www.netzarim.co.il ; “History Museum”

    The reconstruction is made using a scientific and logic methodology. One of the premises is that the historical Ribi Yehoshua was a Torah-observant Pharisee (why that premise is true is found in the above website, in which you also will find more information about why a reconstruction is needed).

    The historical Ribi Yehoshua and his followers Netzarim observed Torah non-selectively.

    Here is one of the mitzwot that one are required to follow in order to follow the teachings of Ribi Yehoshua:
    Torah including Halakhah with a formal logical connection to Torah (i.e. it is a mitzwah (directive or military-style order)), requires subordination to a beit-din. The only option (learn more why that is the case in the below website) for those whom believe that Ribi Yehoshua is ha-Mashiakh and wants to follow him is to subordinate to the beit-din ha-Netzarim (the only legitimate Netzarim: www.netzarim.co.il).

    That is required for the person who want to be faithful to Torah.

    Anders Branderud

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  2. Here are a few more scriptures from Yeshua to digest. From the English Wycleffe version -

    Matthew 15:3 - 3 He answered, and said to them, Why [also] break ye the commandment of God for your tradition?

    Mark 7:9 - 9 And he said to them, Well ye have made the commandment of God void, to keep your tradition. [And he said to them, Well ye have made the commandment of God void, that ye keep your tradition.]

    Mark 7:13 - 13 and ye break the word of God by your tradition, that ye have given [a]; and ye do many [other] such things.

    Again, this retranslation is contradictory to what Yeshua himself teaches.

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  3. I should apologize, there are readers here who do not understand what the Talmud says. For those who do not understand what the Talmud says, read what is stated by one of the foremost authorities on the Talmud.

    "What need is there for basing the
    decision on a Biblical verse"."It is S'Bara", meaning the decision is
    logical so therefore Torah, whether or not it is based on the Torah.
    (page 3 Not in Heaven by foremost Orthodox Talmudist, Eliezer Berkovits)

    What kind of logic is this? A finite man putting his thinking above an infinite God's? This practice is done in our Catholic churches today. It is no more correct on one side as it is the other. This writer must have missed 2 Timothy 3:16 and Deuteronomy 4:2. Remember what the Bible states specifically about the Torah for anybody who chooses not to follow it. " 2 Do not add to what I command you and do not subtract from it, but keep the commands of the LORD your God that I give you."

    Most Christians and Messianics will be familiar with 2 Timothy 3:16 which further confirms this statement. 16All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness. All scripture is final authority in matters. Not what Rabbi Eleizer has to say.

    Good further read on the Talmud is here for everyone who is interested - http://www.iahushua.com/JQ/Torah.html

    Sorry we had to get off topic here. I'll assure you that the Talmud is a subject we will touch base more on later. One final quote from what the rabbis have stated regarding the Torah.

    “My son, be careful concerning Rabbinical decrees (Mitzvot D’Rabbanan) even
    more than
    the Torah (Mitzvot D’Oraita) the Torah contains prohibitions…But anyone who violates a Rabbinical decree (Mitzvot
    D’Rabbanan) is worthy of death.

    - B. Talmud, Eruvin 21b

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  4. So as we've seen, the Oral tradition, as you call it, the Oral Torah is never made mention of by Yeshua in a positive light at all. It is never even included within the Written Torah. You have a faulty translation in front of you. The Oral traditions have to do with Babylonian paganism for the most part, and actually in certain instances will include some ironic statements that the words of the rabbis are above the words of God, and that even God must conform to the words of the Rabbis! This is complete heresy. Also the Talmud says you may sacrifice your children to Molech, and it regards non-Jews as less than human.

    So it actually is contradictory towards the Written Torah, in which it says that everything was passed down to Joshua in a written form, and was then passed down to everyone else. Recall that from Joshua 8:30-34 " 30 Then Joshua built on Mount Ebal an altar to the LORD, the God of Israel, 31 as Moses the servant of the LORD had commanded the Israelites. He built it according to what is written in the Book of the Law of Moses—an altar of uncut stones, on which no iron tool had been used. On it they offered to the LORD burnt offerings and sacrificed fellowship offerings. [a] 32 There, in the presence of the Israelites, Joshua copied on stones the law of Moses, which he had written. 33 All Israel, aliens and citizens alike, with their elders, officials and judges, were standing on both sides of the ark of the covenant of the LORD, facing those who carried it—the priests, who were Levites. Half of the people stood in front of Mount Gerizim and half of them in front of Mount Ebal, as Moses the servant of the LORD had formerly commanded when he gave instructions to bless the people of Israel.
    34 Afterward, Joshua read all the words of the law—the blessings and the curses—just as it is written in the Book of the Law."
    The Oral Torah is presumed to have been around at the time of Moses, but if it were so important, then why was it not also taught to Joshua to teach the Oral Torah to the people? The conclusion, is that it wasn't around at this given point of time. It was not around until the Babylonian captivity in fact.

    So based on your Netzarim (I'm assuming you're an Orthodox Mr. Branderud) translation, Yeshua contradicts himself. It is not the fault of Yeshua, but the one mistranslating Yeshua. The word utilized there for commandments is mitzvah (not halakah) and the word for the Torah is Ha Nomos when translated into the Greek from Hebrew/Aramaic.

    For future reference to readers of this blog :) I do love all you in the name of our high priest (Hebrews 8:1-3), if you wish to discuss this further, DO NOT DO SO ON THIS PAGE. As I discussed in my first post, I would welcome a discussion via e-mail.

    Shalom and God bless,

    hamashiachagape

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  5. The Shemtov Matthew is one further subject I want to touch base on.

    The document that Anders presents is not an original document of Matthew. Shemtov Matthew comes from 1386 during the Spanish Inquisition and was a document utilized to try to keep Jews from converting to Catholicism. It is copied from the Toledoth Yeshu, which is a surviving document, and very distorted document from around the 5th to 10th century A.D. As my studies have dictated much of what survives from that document is from a highly distorted text from Shemtov that can be found here - http://oneinmessiah.net/HEBREWMATTHEW.htm and a bunch of clean ups and additions to the text by subsequent writers such as George Howard, which can be located here - http://www.torahresource.com/Dutillet.html The Hebrew Matthew originals that we unfortunately do not have were burnt in the library of Caesarea.

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